Why we reject that God is the Author of Sin!

God is NOT the Author of Sin!

There are those who ask the question “Is not God the author of sin” out of curiosity. There are others who ask this question for the sake of encouraging a debate or discussion on the matter, not that they are convinced in themselves that God IS the author of sin; but there are others, not a few, who assert that God IS the author of sin! This to them is an ‘orthodox doctrine’, and if you differ they will even go so far as to call you an Antichrist! The article I have penned above is actually the outcome of such an accusation.

These who assert that God is the  author of sin are pretty set in their delusion (for delusion it is) and they will not listen to any other view on the matter. The attitude being – “My mind is made up, don’t confuse me with the facts”!

Their only defense is – “If the Bible says that God created all things, then He created sin too”! “It stands to reason, they say” and thus bow before the ‘god of reason’! Like the Jehovah’s Witnesses who just don’t see how the Lord Jesus can be both God and man at the same time. Reason, rationality and logic are all very good and have their place. But the Mighty Jehovah and His ways cannot be discovered or understood by these!

“Canst thou by SEARCHING find out God? Canst thou find out the Almighty UNTO PERFECTION? It is as high as heaven; what canst thou do? Deeper than hell; what canst thou know? The measure thereof is longer than the earth, and broader than the sea”. [Job 11:7-9]

“Lo, these are PARTS OF HIS WAYS: but how little a portion is heard of Him? but the thunder of His power who can understand”?  [Job 26:14]

There was a time when I used to wonder WHY God did not say things a little more plainly in the Scriptures. Why did He allow SEEMING contradictions in His Word? Like with the issue on hand, why did He not just put a verse in there somewhere that says, “I am not the author of sin”! This would have made life so easy for us who contend earnestly for the faith.

But it is only since a few years I am beginning to see more plainly that God wrote the Bible with one purpose in mind – to SAVE HIS ELECT AND TO CONFUSE AND DAMN THE REPROBATE!

When the disciples asked the Master why He spoke things in parables rather than just say things PLAINLY, He said – “Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables: That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them”. [Mark 4:11,12]

But there is ANOTHER reason why God wrote the Bible the way it is written; and that is  – “there MUST BE ALSO HERESIES among you, that they which are approved may be made manifest among you”. [1Cor 11:19]. How can there be ‘heresies’ if everything was plain and there were no verses which SEEMINGLY contradict the truth?!

Boettner was right when he said – “The Bible is NOT a work on Systematic Theology, but only the QUARRY out of which the stone for such a temple can be obtained”. You can tell me ANY cardinal doctrine of the Christian faith and I’ll show you at least a couple of verses that seem to teach the EXACT OPPOSITE!

Do you believe in the Holy Trinity? Why, my Bible tells me that ‘But to us there is but ONE GOD, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him’ [1Cor8:6]

Do you believe that salvation is by Faith alone? My Bible tells me that ‘BY WORKS a man is justified, and NOT BY FAITH ONLY’. [Jam 2:24]

Are you contending that the ‘Pentecostals’ are wrong and that ‘tongues’ are not for today? My Bible says – “I would that ye ALL spake with tongues”! And “FORBID NOT to speak with tongues” etc. [1Cor 14:5,39]

But you see ‘Doctrine’ is not built on a stray verse here and there, but by the PREPONDERANCE OF SCRIPTURE. What is the overall, dominating teaching of the Scriptures on a given subject? And if a verse or two seem to teach the opposite, we don’t pit Scripture against Scripture but harmonize the seemingly opposing verse or wait till God gives us further light.

Many untaught minds reject the doctrine of Election, because according to them, it would be unjust for God to save only a few and pass by the others. But we who have our understanding enlightened by the grace of God know that God does not owe man anything. He would be just if He sent us all to Hell, because we are a condemned race, already tried and condemned in our head – Adam!

And we who reject the teaching that God is ‘the author of sin’, do so, not because we are blind or deluded as the Arminian; but because we are persuaded that “surely GOD WILL NOT DO WICKEDLY, neither will the Almighty PERVERT JUDGMENT”. “Shall not the Judge of all the earth DO RIGHT”? [Gen 18:25]

To take an innocent unfallen Adam, infuse sin into him and ‘make him to sin’ and then condemn him and his posterity to an unimaginable Hell Fire for all ETERNITY, is NOT THE NATURE OF THE GOD WE HAVE COME TO KNOW!

As the Apostle affirms – “This then is the message which we have heard of Him, and declare unto you, that God is light, and in HIM IS NO DARKNESS AT ALL”! [1John 1:5]

We cannot conceive of a thrice Holy God who is ‘All day long stretching forth His hands unto a disobedient and gainsaying people’ to repent [Rom 10:21], while at the same time infusing sin into them and making them disobedient!

There ARE mysteries in the Bible. How God can become a man and be God at the same time is a mystery. It is called the ‘great mystery of Godliness’ [1Tim 3:16]. In like manner the origin of sin is a mystery! Scripture in one place calls it ‘the mystery of iniquity’ [2Thes 2:7]. God has deemed it best not to reveal its origin, nor has He claimed to be the Author of it! The best minds in divinity have searched this out for centuries and come to the conclusion, that GOD IS NOT THE AUTHOR OF SIN, though He has decreed it, permitted it in His universe and channels it to His glory!

Those who charge God with this folly only REPROACH AND BLASHEME GOD, not knowing the Scriptures nor the power of God! And the Day is coming when He shall ask of them – “WHO hath required this at your hand”?! And He will charge them with the same charge as he did Job’s ‘friends’ – ‘Ye have not spoken of Me THE THING THAT IS RIGHT”! [Job 42:7]

#Sin #GodisNOTtheAuthorofSin

Limited Atonement - Scripture Proofs:

Limited Atonement - Scripture Proofs:

1. Primary references. 

    a. Matthew 1:21. And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. 

Notice here the emphasis on "his people." They are the ones Jesus saves and no others. Whoever they may be (and the Scriptures teach us in other places that they are the elect), they are a limited and particular number of persons. But notice also the emphasis on the fact that He does save them. He does not merely make salvation available but saves them from their sins entirely. Most important of all is the fact that these are the reasons why He is called JESUS. To deny either of these things is to deny His very name and the meaning of His name. 

    b. Isaiah 53:11. He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities. 

    c. Matthew 20:28. Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many. 

    d. Matthew 26:28. For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sin. 

    e. Hebrews 9:28. So Christ was once offered to bear the sin of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation. 

All four of these texts show that Christ gave His life for a select and limited number of persons and not for every single person. This is not to deny that there are also passages which speak of "all" or of the "world"; but if the Bible is indeed the infallible Word of God, then the two types of passages cannot contradict each other, and either it must be shown that "many" somehow does mean "every single person," or it must be shown that "all" and "world" do not necessarily refer to every single person living or who has lived. Isaiah 53:11 and Matthew 26:28 also use this language. 

It might be noted here, too, that the Scriptures speak of this "many" for whom Christ gave His life in connection with the fact that that gift of His life was a satisfaction and justification for those for whom He died, a ransom that actually purchases them out of the slavery of sin and death, and that it actually remits sin, i.e., sends it away. 

    f. John 6:37-39. All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out. For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day. 

This passage also says that Christ actually loses none of those for whom He does His work. It is not as though Christ comes for all and yet loses many who slip away or do not believe. If He had lost even one of those for whom He came, He would not have done the Father's will, and His work would not even have been approved of God. This, by the way, also shows that it was not even God's will that Christ should die for or make salvation possible for all men. 

Here again the ones for whom He comes and does His work are those given Him by the Father, that is, the elect, those chosen by God before the foundations of the world. 

This passage is also valuable because it gives clear guidance as to how the word "all" is used in the Scriptures. We must not forget that it is not only used here but further defined as "all whom the Father giveth me." The "all" for whom Christ died, as this passage shows so clearly, never includes anyone but "all" the elect. 

    g. John 10:14, 15. I am the good shepherd, and know my sheep, and am known of mine. As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep. 

This passage not only teaches limited atonement by its emphasis on the sheep as the ones for whom Christ died, but it teaches very plainly what we have previously called "particular" atonement in that it tells us that Christ knows His sheep in the same way that the Father knows Him and He knows the Father, i.e., personally and by name. If this is true and if He laid down His life for those whom He knows personally, then He cannot have died merely so that anyone and everyone might have a chance at salvation. 

    h. John 10:26-28. But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you. My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: and I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. 

That He actually saves His sheep by His death, saves them all the way to heavenly glory, infallibly and completely, is taught in the verses quoted. These verses show that it is not our faith that determines whether we will profit from Christ's death, but the will of God. In other words, as Jesus tells the unbelieving Jews, it is not that they are not part of the sheep who profit from His death because they do not believe; but because they are not of His sheep, they do not believe, i.e., because He did not die for them, they do not receive the gift of faith which He purchases for us with His own blood nor any of the other blessings of salvation. 

    i. Acts 20:28. Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood. 

This passage identifies once again those for whom the blood of Christ was shed as a limited and particular number of persons, in this case, the church. And when we remember that very often in the Scriptures the church is contrasted with the world as a group drawn and called out of it, this makes the text even more emphatic. 

    j. Isaiah 53:8. He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken. 

    k. Luke 1:68. Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people. 

Here are two more passages that define those for whom Christ gave His life as "His people" or even "My people" (God Himself speaking). Surely the wicked and unbelieving cannot be called that! 

    l. Titus 2:13, 14. Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ; who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of all good works. 

   m. Galatians 3:13. Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is everyone that hangeth on a tree. 

These last passages define those who benefit from Christ's redemptive work as "us," and the word used is by its very nature exclusive rather than inclusive. 

Titus 2:13, 14 is especially significant because it not only speaks of Christ giving Himself for us but shows that those for whom He gave Himself are surely and completely saved - redeemed, purified, and zealous of good works. 

2. Passages which show that Christ's death actually and fully saves those for whom He died. 

Many of the passages quoted above demonstrate clearly that Christ's death does not make salvation just a possibility, so that it depends on our accepting it to become efficacious but that it is salvation and the guarantee of eternal life for all those for whom He died. Since this is the real issue, however, in the debate over limited atonement, we add these passages to those previously quoted. 

    a. Luke 19:10. For the Son of Man is come to seek and to save that which was lost. 

Notice here that Christ comes to save the lost, not just to make it possible for them to be saved, the lost being those who know themselves lost like Zacchaeus. What is especially important about this verse, though, is that it is an explanation ("For ...") of the previous verse. There Jesus says, "This day is salvation come to this house." Salvation came, therefore, to the house of Zacchaeus not because he believed but because the Son of Man comes to save. 

    b. Romans 5:8-10. But God commended therewith his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him. For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of His Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life. 

The point cannot be made anymore clearly than this verse makes it. We are reconciled to God by the death of Christ. That means that there is nothing anymore that is between God and us, nor can anything come between us, for having been reconciled, we shall be saved. This reference to salvation is more a reference to the final glory of God's people than to their first partaking of it, but that in no wise lessens the emphasis of the text. If anything, it makes the text even stronger, for then we have here a guarantee not only of the beginning of salvation but of eternal life itself and of heavenly glory. What is more, the passage is repeating and re-emphasizing that point, for it has already stated that we are justified by His blood (and therefore have peace with God (v. 1), and being justified shall surely be saved from wrath. The line of thought therefore is this: (1) Christ's death justifies; (2) because it justifies, it surely saves us from God's wrath; (3) therefore, there is no possibility of condemnation for anyone for whom Christ died but rather the assurance of life everlasting. 

    c I Peter 2:24. Who his ownself bore our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed. 

This passage also teaches that not only Christ's death, but also all His suffering (his stripes) have actual saving power. It is to us the death of sin and the beginning of a new life of righteousness as well as our healing. And not only is it not merely the possibility of healing, but by it we were (literally, "have been") healed.

THE MEANING OF "KOSMOS" IN JOHN 3:16

 THE MEANING OF "KOSMOS" IN JOHN 3:16

A.W. Pink 

It may appear to some of our readers that the exposition we have given of John 3:16 in the chapter on "Difficulties and Objections" is a forced and unnatural one, inasmuch as our definition of the term "world" seems to be out of harmony with the meaning and scope of this word in other passages, where, to supply the world of believers (God’s elect) as a definition of "world" would make no sense. Many have said to us, "Surely, ‘world’ means world, that is, you, me, and everybody." In reply we would say: We know from experience how difficult it is to set aside the "traditions of men" and come to a passage which we have heard explained in a certain way scores of times, and study it carefully for ourselves without bias Nevertheless, this is essential if we would learn the mind of God. 

Many people suppose they already know the simple meaning of John 3:16, and therefore they conclude that no diligent study is required of them to discover the precise teaching of this verse. Needless to say, such an attitude shuts out any further light which they otherwise might obtain on the passage. Yet, if anyone will take a Concordance and read carefully the various passages in which the term "world" (as a translation of "kosmos") occurs, he will quickly perceive that to ascertain the precise meaning of, the word "world" in any given passage is not nearly so easy as is popularly supposed. 

The word "kosmos," and its English equivalent "world," is not used with a uniform significance in the New Testament. Very far from it. It is used in quite a number of different ways. Below we will refer to a few passages where this term occurs, suggesting a tentative definition in each case: 

"Kosmos" is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17: 24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth." is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17: 24 - "God that made the world and all things therein seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth." 

"Kosmos" is used of the earth: John 13:1; Eph. 1:4, etc., etc.- "When Jesus knew that his hour was come that He should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved His own which were in the world He loved them unto the end." "Depart out of this world" signifies, leave this earth. "According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world." This expression signifies, before the earth was founded—compare Job 38:4 etc. 

"Kosmos" is used of the world-system: John 12:31 etc. "Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the Prince of this world be cast out"— compare Matt. 4:8 and I John 5:19, R. V.

"Kosmos" is used of the whole human race: Rom. 3: 19, etc.—"Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." 

"Kosmos" is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom. 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view. is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom. 3:6 "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ. "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean "you, me, and everybody," for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view. 

"Kosmos" is used of Gentiles in contrast from Jews: Rom. 11:12 etc. "Now if the fall of them (Israel) be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them (Israel) the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their (Israel’s) fulness." Note how the first clause in italics is defined by the latter clause placed in italics. Here, again, "the world" cannot signify all humanity for it excludes Israel! 

"Kosmos" is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place. is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16, 17; 6:33; 12;47; I Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. We leave our readers to turn to these passages, asking them to note, carefully, exactly what is said and predicated of "the world" in each place. 

Thus it will be seen that "kosmos" has at least seven clearly defined different meanings in the New Testament. It may be asked, Has then God used a word thus to confuse and confound those who read the Scriptures? We answer, No! nor has He written His Word for lazy people who are too dilatory, or too busy with the things of this world, or, like Martha, so much occupied with "serving," they have no time and no heart to "search" and "study" Holy Writ! 

Should it be asked further, But how is a searcher of the Scriptures to know which of the above meanings the term "world" has in any given passage? The answer is: This may be ascertained by a careful study of the context, by diligently noting what is predicated of "the world" in each passage, and by prayer fully consulting other parallel passages to the one being studied. 

The principal subject of John 3:16 is Christ as the Gift of God. The first clause tells us what moved God to "give" His only begotten Son, and that was His great "love;" the second clause informs us for whom God "gave" His Son, and that is for, "whosoever (or, better, ‘every one’) believeth;" while the last clause makes known why God "gave" His Son (His purpose), and that is, that everyone that believeth "should not perish but have everlasting life." 

That "the world" in John 3:16 refers to the world of believers (God’s elect), in contradistinction from "the world of the ungodly" (2 Pet. 2:5), is established, unequivocally established, by a comparison of the other passages which speak of God’s "love." "God commendeth His love toward US"—the saints, Rom. 5:8. "Whom the Lord loveth He chasteneth"—every son, Heb. 12:6. "We love Him, because He first loved US"—believers, I John 4:19. 

The wicked God "pities" (see Matt. 18:33). Unto the unthankful and evil God is "kind" (see Luke 6:35). The vessels of wrath He endures "with much long-suffering" (see Rom. 9:22). But "His own" God "loves"!!

#universalatonement #gospel  #kosmos #john3 #world  #godslove #allworld

Theory of a well-meant offer.

 Well-Meant Offer of the Gospel

The theory of a well-meant offer, that is, God’s offer of salvation to all humans with the desire that all humans be saved, and the heresy of universal atonement are inseparably linked. If God in the preaching desires all to be saved out of a love for them all, Christ must have died for all.

 Theologians are now pressing this truth upon nominally Reformed theologians and churches that have committed themselves to the well-meant offer. The theory of a well-meant offer necessarily implies universal atonement.

The heresy is that God loves all (with a saving love–the love that gave Jesus to the cross). The misunderstanding, if such it is, and not worse, is that one can promiscuously preach Christ, draw the elect to God, and assure elect sinners of their salvation only by preaching the well-meant offer. In fact, the gospel presents Christ to all; (externally, but seriously) calls all hearers to come to Christ for salvation; and promises salvation to all who come in a true faith. To preach promiscuously “whoever believes will be saved” does not need nor does it depend upon universal atonement. Those who will believe are the elect in the audience, whom God will draw by His inner, efficacious call as the gospel is preached.

To state the issue bluntly, preaching “whoever believes will be saved” does not require, or imply, universal atonement. It requires, and implies, atonement for whomever repents and believes. And these are the elect.

#universalatonement #gospel 

Is the gospel of God’s grace in Christ to be offered to all men?”

 Is the gospel of God’s grace in Christ to be offered to all men?”

If one would be willing to change the word offer in the question into preaching then I can readily answer in the affirmative. The word offer does not fit in that context, for grace is not offered, but given. Apart from that I would have no objection to the proposition that the preaching must be a proclamation of God’s grace in Christ. (Herman Hoeksema, "A Power of God Unto Salvation," p. 76)

This controversy is not about whether the gospel should be preached to all men and that all should be called to repentance and faith and that the promise of the gospel should be made known to all. All agree to the above, but debate is over the will and desire of God in the call of the gospel. (Lau Chin Kwee, “Protestant Reformed Theological Journal,” vol. 36, no. 1 [Nov. 2002], p. 29)

Other questions and answers 

#Gospel 

FOR WHOM DID CHRIST DIE?

 For WHOM did Christ die? We answer, Christ died for “God’s elect”!

“Strangest thing in the world for me is for men to contend that Christ made an effort on the Cross to save the whole world, and then turned around and said, “I pray not for the world!” – Pastor Henry Mahan

“And she shall bring forth a Son, and thou shalt call His name Jesus: for He shall save HIS people from THEIR sins [Mt. 1:21]. Christ died not simply to render sins pardonable, but “to PUT AWAY SIN by the sacrifice of Himself” [Heb. 9:26].

As to WHO’S “sin” has been “put away”, Scripture leaves us in no doubt—it was that of the elect. “For the transgressions of MY PEOPLE was He stricken [Isa. 53:8]. Again the Lord’s own words are, “I lay down My life for the SHEEP” (not the goats)! [John 10:15]

“Christ did not intend to save those He knew He would not save. If He intended to and NOT FOR THE WORLD. It was the elect that Christ came to save. Since God eternally decreed not to save others Christ would not be engaged in a FOOL’S errand.” [Jonathan Edwards]

Men’s fanciful delusion of an Unlimited Atonement is reduced to this – “IF the sinner believes, then Christ died for him; if the sinner does not believe, then Christ did not die for him; thus the sinner’s act is made the cause of its own object, as though his believing WOULD MAKE THAT TO BE WHICH OTHERWISE WAS NOT”. [A.W. Pink]